Reformed Theology Help me understand double predestination  Calvinism

Help me understand double predestination

Reformed Theology Help me understand double predestination  Calvinism
Help me understand double predestination

Full disclosure: I don't subscribe to Reformed theology or Protestant thought in general, but I'm deeply interested in the Reformers and their work. I listen regularly to the Christ the Center podcast and its a bit illuminating, but I'm still just not clear on Calvin's idea of predestination and God's foreknowledge of our outcome.

Tell me where I'm wrong: God has foreknowledge of all possible decisions we may make and already knows which courses of action we will definitively take. Based on this, He acts in complete freedom by bestowing grace on us, which grace is irresistible and we (if per divine foreknowledge) respond positively to it, thus effecting our justification. These people who are justified by God's grace can in no way fall away and lose that salvific justification, and therefore can be called "elect." Is this correct? Please point out any deficiencies and if you can, cite biblical supports for it, because I really want to understand it from an unbiased source.

I'm coming from an Arminian position (Orthodox Christian, but interested in process and open theism) , but I feel like starting with free will as an unquestiomble assumption is uncritical and bad theology, and maybe just a hold over from Greek philosophy, who knows. Thanks to all in advance.

Full disclosure: I don’t subscribe to Reformed theology or Protestant thought in general, but I’m deeply interested in the Reformers and their work. I listen regularly to the Christ the Center podcast and its a bit illuminating, but I’m still just not clear on Calvin’s idea of predestination and God’s foreknowledge of our outcome.Tell me where I’m wrong: God has foreknowledge of all possible decisions we may make and already knows which courses of action we will definitively take. Based on this, He acts in complete freedom by bestowing grace on us, which grace is irresistible and we (if per divine foreknowledge) respond positively to it, thus effecting our justification. These people who are justified by God’s grace can in no way fall away and lose that salvific justification, and therefore can be called “elect.” Is this correct? Please point out any deficiencies and if you can, cite biblical supports for it, because I really want to understand it from an unbiased source.I’m coming from an Arminian position (Orthodox Christian, but interested in process and open theism) , but I feel like starting with free will as an unquestiomble assumption is uncritical and bad theology, and maybe just a hold over from Greek philosophy, who knows. Thanks to all in advance.
Link: Help me understand double predestination
Submitted by undergroundnotetaker

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