Reformed Theology I have some more questions regarding Theonomy for both sides of the argument.  Calvinism

I have some more questions regarding Theonomy for both sides of the argument.

Reformed Theology I have some more questions regarding Theonomy for both sides of the argument.  Calvinism
I have some more questions regarding Theonomy for both sides of the argument.

For Both:

It seems to me that Theonomists views are often very tied to eschatological views, so what are yours and why?

For Non-Theonomists:

WCF 19.4 is often cited, but it seems to me that there is no scriptural reference for the statement that these judicial laws absolutely expired with the State of Israel. Where does this idea come from biblically?

What exactly is the general equity of the Civil Law if not the general principle (what is general just and unjust as a category of law and punishment for those laws) applied in context?

For Theonomists:

What do you do with the idea that God’s standard of justice isn’t exclusively limited to the Civil Laws of Israel since the just punishment for any sin and, by extension, crime (as crimes are sin) is actually death (and thus the Civil Laws of Israel are actually a mercy shown to Israel for their crimes and God, by way of the Civil Magistrate which is his sword, can do whatever he so pleases in governments today)?

What biblical evidence do we have that the Kingdom of God, in this present age, is to cause Civil Governments to follow the Civil Law of Israel and isn’t just supposed to be the church? It seems as if everything I have seen is Old Testament stuff that is in the middle of passages that were fulfilled in unexpected ways, so I don’t know why to believe that one point is thought to be being fulfilled in the expected way over time.

How do we know that all of this talk of bringing all the nations to Christ and all the nations waiting for his Law isn’t just hyperbolic language like it is for salvation?

For Both:It seems to me that Theonomists views are often very tied to eschatological views, so what are yours and why?For Non-Theonomists:WCF 19.4 is often cited, but it seems to me that there is no scriptural reference for the statement that these judicial laws absolutely expired with the State of Israel. Where does this idea come from biblically?What exactly is the general equity of the Civil Law if not the general principle (what is general just and unjust as a category of law and punishment for those laws) applied in context?For Theonomists:What do you do with the idea that God’s standard of justice isn’t exclusively limited to the Civil Laws of Israel since the just punishment for any sin and, by extension, crime (as crimes are sin) is actually death (and thus the Civil Laws of Israel are actually a mercy shown to Israel for their crimes and God, by way of the Civil Magistrate which is his sword, can do whatever he so pleases in governments today)?What biblical evidence do we have that the Kingdom of God, in this present age, is to cause Civil Governments to follow the Civil Law of Israel and isn’t just supposed to be the church? It seems as if everything I have seen is Old Testament stuff that is in the middle of passages that were fulfilled in unexpected ways, so I don’t know why to believe that one point is thought to be being fulfilled in the expected way over time.How do we know that all of this talk of bringing all the nations to Christ and all the nations waiting for his Law isn’t just hyperbolic language like it is for salvation?
Link: I have some more questions regarding Theonomy for both sides of the argument.
Submitted by codleov

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