Did Jesus "lay aside the independent use of His power?" Or did he lay aside the Godly form to take on the form of a man.
I know this is a little sticky, and my pastor said a few things that sort of contradicted each other, but I think at the heart of it he had it right.
I believe that Jesus was fully God and became also fully man, (hypostatic union,) but relied on the power of the Holy Spirit as fully man. I'm not sure that I am putting that as correctly as I mean, but Jesus could never be less than fully divine, and to teach otherwise is basically heresy. (I like that word. I could just say incorrect, but to deny the deity of Jesus is actual heresy.)
Submitted by GhostofDan